The following calculus problem is from the Stanford Math Tournament, 2013 #10.
Evaluate $$\lim_{n \to \infty}\left[\left(\prod_{k=1}^{n}{\frac{2k}{2k-1}}\right)\left(\int_{-1}^{\infty}\frac{(\cos{x})^{2n}}{2^x}\,dx\right)\right]$$
I've had immense difficulty with this problem, and I wasn't really able to understand the solutions to this problem provided by Stanford. Hopefully you guys can help me out. Thanks!
Edit: Okay, to the person who voted my question to be closed because it was deemed off-topic and did not provide enough context: there's not really much I can say about my own approach to this question since it is beyond my level. I'm pretty much clueless about where to even begin, so sorry about that.
The product is equal to
$$\frac{2^{2 n}}{\displaystyle \binom{2 n}{n}} $$
which behaves as $\sqrt{\pi n}$ as $n \to \infty$. As for the integral, rewrite as
$$\int_{-1}^0 dx \, 2^{-x} \cos^{2 n}{x} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} 2^{-\pi k} \int_0^{\pi} dx \, 2^{-x} \cos^{2 n}{x}$$
Rewrite in a form useful for Watson's Lemma:
$$\int_{-1}^0 dx \, 2^{-x} e^{2 n \log{(\cos{x})}} + \frac1{1-2^{-\pi}}\left [ \int_0^{\pi/2} dx \, 2^{-x} e^{2 n \log{(\cos{x})}}+\int_{\pi/2}^{\pi} dx \, 2^{-x} e^{2 n \log{(-\cos{x})}}\right ]$$
or
$$\int_{-1}^0 dx \, 2^{-x} e^{2 n \log{(\cos{x})}} + \frac1{1-2^{-\pi}}\left [ \int_0^{\pi/2} dx \, 2^{-x} e^{2 n \log{(\cos{x})}}+\int_{0}^{\pi/2} dx \, 2^{x} e^{2 n \log{(\cos{x})}}\right ]$$
The maximum of the argument of the exponential in each integral occurs at $x=0$. About $x=0$, $\log{(\cos{x})} \sim -x^2/2$. By Watson's Lemma, we may extend the interval of integration in each integral out to infinity with exponentially small error as $n \to \infty$. Thus, each integral behaves as $\frac12 \sqrt{\pi/n}$ in this limit. Note, however, that there is no contribution from the integral over $[-1,0]$ because its contribution is subsumed in the first integral over $[0,\pi/2]$ because $1 \lt \pi/2$. Thus, the sought-after limit is
$$\sqrt{\pi n} \frac{1}{1-2^{-\pi}} \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{n}} = \frac{\pi}{1-2^{-\pi}} $$
ADDENDUM
Likely closer to the problem-poser's intent is the observation that
$$\prod_{k=1}^n \frac{2 k}{2 k-1} = \frac{2^{2 n}}{\displaystyle \binom{2 n}{n}} $$
and, as $n \to \infty$,
$$\int_0^{\pi} dx \, 2^{-x} \cos^{2 n}{x} \sim \int_0^{\pi} dx \, \cos^{2 n}{x} = \frac{\pi }{2^{2 n}} \binom{2 n}{n} $$
The result follows.