I have intuitively guessed that the answer should be 1 as $x\to +\infty$. How do I formally prove this? Also how do I evaluate the limit as $x\to -\infty $.
UPDATE: Based on the answers below, I have managed to do the following. $$ \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln (1+e^x)}{x} \\ = \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln e^x(\frac{1}{e^x}+1)}{x} \\ = \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{x +\ln (\frac{1}{e^x}+1)}{x} \\ = \lim_{x\to\infty} 1+ \ln (1+\frac{1}{e^x})^\frac{1}{x} \\ $$ How do I proceed proceed from here?
For $x\rightarrow +\infty$: $$1 = \frac{\ln e^x}{x} \leq \frac{\ln (1+e^x)}{x} \leq \frac{\ln (2e^x)}{x}=1+\frac{\ln 2}{x} \stackrel{x\rightarrow +\infty}{\longrightarrow}1$$
For $x\rightarrow -\infty$: $$x=\ln y \Rightarrow \lim_{x\rightarrow -\infty}\frac{\ln (1+e^x)}{x} = \lim_{y\rightarrow 0^+}\frac{\ln (1+y)}{\ln y} = 0$$