$$\displaystyle \operatorname{lim}_{x\to \infty}(\operatorname{log}x)^{\frac{1}{x}}$$
$t=\frac1x \Rightarrow \displaystyle \operatorname{lim}_{t\to 0^+}(\operatorname{log}\frac1t)^t\Rightarrow(-1)^t(\operatorname{log}t)^t$
In my opininion the limit doesnot exist.Is it Correct?
Note: $(-\ln 0.5)^{0.5}=((-1)\cdot(-\ln 2))^{0.5}\ne (-1)^{0.5}\cdot (-\ln 2)^{0.5}$, because the last is undefined.
If you want to make a change, let: $\ln x=t \Rightarrow x=e^t$. Then: $$\lim_{x\to\infty} (\ln x)^{1/x}=\lim_{t\to\infty} t^{1/e^t}=\lim_{t\to\infty} \exp\left(\frac{\ln t}{e^t}\right)=\exp\left(\lim_{t\to\infty} \frac{\ln t}{e^t}\right)=\exp(0)=1.$$