$$I=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \lbrace\tan x\rbrace\mathrm{d}x$$ So I have this interesting integral and I tried to evaluate it:
Let $u=\tan x$ we'll have the following: \begin{align} \int_0^\infty \frac{\lbrace u\rbrace}{1+u^2 }\mathrm{d}u&=\int_0^\infty \frac{u-\lfloor u\rfloor}{1+u^2}\mathrm{d}u\\ &=\lim_{a\to +\infty} \Bigg(\int_0^a \frac{u}{u^2+1}\mathrm{d}u-\int_0^a\frac{\lfloor u\rfloor}{u^2+1}\mathrm{d}u\Bigg) \end{align} And the first part is obvious: $$\int_0^a \frac{u}{u^2+1}\mathrm{d}u=\frac{\ln (a^2+1)}2$$ Therefore: $$I=\lim_{a\to +\infty}\Bigg(\frac{\ln (a^2+1)}2-\underbrace{\int_0^a\frac{\lfloor u\rfloor}{u^2+1}\mathrm{d}u}_{F}\Bigg)$$ And $F$ is the part where I got stuck because $\lfloor x\rfloor$ can't be simplified or approximated. Any thoughts or hints?
Note that we can write
$$\begin{align} \int_{0}^{N}\frac{x-\lfloor x\rfloor }{x^2+1}\,dx&=\frac12\log(N^2+1)-\sum_{n=1}^N\int_{n-1}^n \frac{\lfloor x\rfloor }{x^2+1}\,dx\\\\ &=\frac12\log(N^2+1)-\sum_{n=1}^N (n-1)(\arctan(n)-\arctan(n-1))\\\\ &=\frac12\log(N^2+1)+\sum_{k=1}^N \arctan(n)-N\arctan(N)\\\\ &=\frac12\log(N^2+1)+N(\arctan(1/N))-\sum_{n=1}^N \arctan(1/n)\\\\ &=\log(N)+1-\sum_{n=1}^N \arctan(1/n)+O\left(\frac{1}{N^2}\right)\\\\ &=\sum_{n=1}^N \left(\frac1n-\arctan(1/n)\right) -\gamma +1+O\left(\frac1N\right) \end{align}$$
Letting $N\to\infty$, we find that
$$\int_0^{\pi/2}\tan(\{x\})\,dx=1-\gamma +\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(\frac1n-\arctan(1/n)\right)$$