I'm reading a proof of a limit calculation. The limit is:
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{a^x+b^x}{2}\right)^\frac{1}{x}$$
where $a,b>0$.
The aother claims that:
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{a^x+b^x}{2}\right)^\frac{1}{x} =
\exp\left( \lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\frac{a^x+b^x}{2} - 1}{x} \right)$$
How come?
Update:
Of course,
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{a^x+b^x}{2}\right)^\frac{1}{x} =
\exp\left(\lim\limits_{x\to 0} \frac{\ln\left( \frac{a^x+b^x}{2} \right)}{x} \right)$$
But how to proceed to reach the auther's expression?
If we try with $$ \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\log(a^x+b^x)-\log 2}{x} $$ and apply l'Hôpital's theorem, we get $$ \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{a^x\log a+b^x\log b}{a^x+b^x}=\frac{\log a+\log b}{2}= \log\sqrt{ab}. $$ It's just the derivative of $x\mapsto (a^x+b^x)/2$ at $0$, of course.
However, $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\log(1+x)}{x}=1 $$ so that $$ \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\log\dfrac{a^x+b^x}{2}}{x}= \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\log\dfrac{a^x+b^x}{2}}{\dfrac{a^x+b^x}{2}-1} \frac{\dfrac{a^x+b^x}{2}-1}{x} $$ and the limit of the first factor is $1$. I don't think it's a real simplification.
It may be worth noting that the function $$ \mu_{a,b}(x)=\begin{cases} \left(\dfrac{a^x+b^x}{2}\right)^{1/x} & \text{if $x\ne0$}\\[2ex] \sqrt{ab} & \text{if $x=0$} \end{cases} $$ for $a,b>0$ is quite interesting, because it's increasing, $\mu_{a,b}(-1)$ is the harmonic mean, $\mu_{a,b}(0)$ is the geometric mean, $\mu_{a,b}(1)$ is the arithmetic mean and $$ \lim_{x\to-\infty}\mu_{a,b}(x)=\min(a,b),\qquad \lim_{x\to\infty}\mu_{a,b}(x)=\max(a,b). $$