I have found this result on the Internet
$$\int_{0}^{1} \left ( \ln \frac{1}{x} \right)^ndx = \Gamma(n+1).$$
I know that if $n \in \mathbb{N}$, the proof is not complicated. However, if $n \in \mathbb{R}$, Do you have any idea to proof it?
I have found this result on the Internet
$$\int_{0}^{1} \left ( \ln \frac{1}{x} \right)^ndx = \Gamma(n+1).$$
I know that if $n \in \mathbb{N}$, the proof is not complicated. However, if $n \in \mathbb{R}$, Do you have any idea to proof it?
Replace $x$ with $e^{-t}$. You get:
$$\int_{0}^{1}(-\log x)^n\,dx = \int_{0}^{+\infty} t^{n}e^{-t}\,dt $$ that is precisely the definition of $\Gamma(n+1)$, given that $\Re(n)>-1$.