As the title, question 5 in this picture
https://i.stack.imgur.com/P52hf.jpg
thanks
On
you might generate arbritary even powers of $x$ by just noticing that
$$ \int_{0}^{\infty}x^{2n}e^{-\alpha x^2}=(-1)^n\partial^n_{\alpha}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-\alpha x^2}=(-1)^n \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\partial^n_{\alpha}\sqrt{\frac{1}{\alpha}} $$
But it is not possible to generate odd powers out of the knowledge that $\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-\alpha x^2}=\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{\alpha}}$!
You need another starting point like
$$ \int_{0}^{\infty}xe^{-\alpha x^2}=\frac{-1}{2\alpha}\int_{0}^{\infty}\partial_{x}e^{-\alpha x^2}=\frac{-1}{2\alpha}\left[e^{-\alpha x^2}\right]_{0}^{\infty}=\frac{1}{2\alpha} $$
The you might procced as above
$$ \int_{0}^{\infty}x^{2n+1}e^{-\alpha x^2}=(-1)^n\partial^n_{\alpha}\int_{0}^{\infty}xe^{-\alpha x^2}=(-1)^n\frac{1}{2}\partial^n_{\alpha}\frac{1}{\alpha} $$
If you know that $$ \int_0^\infty e^{-\alpha x^2} \: dx=\frac12\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{\alpha}}, \qquad \alpha>0. $$ Then you may deduce, using an integration by parts, that
The other integral $$ I_1(\alpha):=\int_0^\infty xe^{-\alpha x^2} \: dx $$ is easily deduced by a change of variable, setting $u=x^2$, $du=2 xdx$, you get