In this thread
a friend posted the following integral
$$I=\int^1_0 \frac{\log(1+x)\log(1-x) \log(x)}{x}\, \mathrm dx$$
The best we could do is expressing it in terms of Euler sums
$$I=-\frac{\zeta^2(2)}{2}+ \sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^2} H_{n}^{(2)}+\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^3}H_{n}$$
I am wondering if the approach I followed made the integral complicated ? What approach would you follow to solve the integral?, can we find a better solution ?
The values of the two Euler Sums are
$$\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n-1} \frac{H_n}{n^{3}} = \frac{11\pi^4}{360}-2\text{Li}_4 \left(\frac{1}{2} \right)-\frac{7}{4}\log(2) \zeta(3)+\frac{\pi^2}{12}\log^2(2)-\frac{1}{12}\log^4(2)$$ $$\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n-1} \frac{H_n^{(2)}}{n^{2}} =-\frac{17}{480}\pi^4 +4 \text{Li}_4 \left(\frac{1}{2} \right)+\frac{7}{2}\log(2) \zeta(3)-\frac{\pi^2 \log^2(2)}{6}+\frac{\log^4(2)}{6}$$
Therefore the integral evaluates to
Refer to this page for the evaluation of Euler Sums.