My assumption would be
$$\int_{-a}^a x\ dx=0$$
Am I on the right track here? Also, for indefinite integrals
$$\int (f)x\ dx$$
would this be correct as well?
Background
My professor raised this question in his lecture and I provided the following
\begin{align}\int_{-a}^{a}\left(x^3\right)dx&= 0\end{align}
and
\begin{align}\int_{-a}^{a}\left(x^7\right)dx&= 0\end{align}
to support that odd degrees will always equal to zero. The professor stated my evaluations were correct, however, I couldn't use the fact that it works for two positive odd exponents to deduce conclusively that the result will hold for all positive odd exponents. Thus, my assumption is that
$$\int_{-a}^a x\ dx=0$$
covers all non-negative integers $n$ simultaneously. Any help in this would be appreciated!
Here it is a more general result which may help you.
Consider that the function $f:\textbf{R}\to\textbf{R}$ is odd. This means that $f(-x) = -f(x)$. Thus one has that \begin{align*} \int_{-a}^{a}f(x)\mathrm{d}x & = \int_{-a}^{0}f(x)\mathrm{d}x + \int_{0}^{a}f(x)\mathrm{d}x\\\\ & = \int_{0}^{a}f(-x)\mathrm{d}x + \int_{0}^{a}f(x)\mathrm{d}x\\\\ & = -\int_{0}^{a}f(x)\mathrm{d}x + \int_{0}^{a}f(x)\mathrm{d}x = 0 \end{align*}
where it has been used the change of variable $u = -x$.
In particular, at your case, $f(x) = x^{2n+1}$, which is odd.