How can you integrate: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(kx)}dx}$$
I know that: $$\int_{0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(x)}dx}=\int_{0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{2}{e^x+e^{-x}}dx}=\int_{0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{2e^{-x}}{1+e^{-2x}}dx}=$$ $$=2\int_{0}^{\infty}{(1-1/3+1/5-1/7+...)dx}=2\pi/4=\pi/2$$
But i don´t know how to integrate: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(kx)}dx}$$
In order to collect all the contributions from @marty cohen and @Stephen Montgomery-Smith, i will write the answer:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(x)}dx}=\pi /2$$
Let $u=kx\implies du=kdx\implies dx=\dfrac{1}{k}du$
Substituting: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(kx)}dx}=\dfrac{1}{k}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(u)}du}$$
Since $\cosh(u) =\cosh(-u)\implies \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{\cosh(u)}du =2\int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{\cosh(u)}du$
So: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dfrac{1}{\cosh(kx)}dx}=2\int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{\cosh(u)}du=\dfrac{\pi}{k}$$