$((λfx.f(f(x))) (λy.y^2)$ (1) is finally evaluated to $1^4=1$
$(3)(3) (\text{inc})(0)=(27)(\text{inc})(0)=27$
Is λfx the same as λf.λx That is is $((λfx.f(f(x))) (λy.y^2) equivalent to $(λf.λx.f(f(x)) (λy.y^2) ?
Is it correct?
Thanks much in advance!
You could have used some functional language interpreter to check this, e.g. Haskell or OCaml, etc.
Yes.
Yes.
Yes, $\lambda\ f\ x.\ M$ is a short notation for $\lambda f.\ \lambda x.\ M$.
I hope this helps ;-)