Without using L'Hôpital's rule, find: $$\lim_{x\to 0}\dfrac{\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}\cos x)}{\sin(\sin x)}$$ I know that the answer is $0$.
My attempt:
I tried by using the half-angle formula, $$\cos\left(\frac{A}{2}\right)=\pm\sqrt{\frac{1+\cos A}{2}},$$ but I've couldn't find it.
\begin{aligned}\lim_{x\to 0}{\frac{\cos{\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\cos{x}\right)}}{\sin{\left(\sin{x}\right)}}}&=\lim_{x\to 0}{\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{2}\cos{x}\right)}}{\sin{\left(\sin{x}\right)}}}\\ &=\lim_{x\to 0}{\left(\frac{\pi x}{2}\times\frac{1-\cos{x}}{x^{2}}\times\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{2}\cos{x}\right)}}{\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{\pi}{2}\cos{x}}\times\frac{x}{\sin{x}}\times\frac{\sin{x}}{\sin{\left(\sin{x}\right)}}\right)}\\ &=0\times\frac{1}{2}\times 1\times 1\times 1\\ &=0\end{aligned}
Because $$ \lim_{\textrm{stuff}\to 0}{\frac{\sin{\left(\mathrm{stuff}\right)}}{\mathrm{stuff}}}=\lim_{x\to 0}{\frac{\sin{x}}{x}}=1 $$
And $$ \lim_{x\to 0}{\frac{1-\cos{x}}{x^{2}}}=\lim_{x\to 0}{\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)}}{\frac{x}{2}}\right)^{2}}=\frac{1}{2} $$