My textbook evaluates the following limit as being equal to $0$ by dividing all the terms by $e^x$.
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x^2}{e^x-1}$$
However, I would like to argue that this limit does not exist, consider
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{0+}{1^+-1} = \lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{0+}{0+} = \infty $$
Now consider $$\lim_{x\to 0^-} \frac{0+}{1^--1} = \lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{0+}{0-} = -\infty $$
The left side and right side limits are not equal, therefore the limit cannot exist. Is my conclusion correct?

Your argument is wrong. To convince you about it, try to compute $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x^2}{x}$$ With your argument, we would deduce that the above limit doesn't exist.
However, I think we agree that $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x^2}{x}=\lim_{x\to 0} x\frac{x}{x}=\lim_{x\to 0} x=0.$$