Evaluating $\mathrm{\sum_{x=2}^\infty \left(\frac1{π^2(x)}+\frac1{π\left(x^2\right)}\right)}$

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It can be seen that: $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6},\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{π(n)}=1$$ Where π(x) is the prime counting function with $π(0\le x<2)$=0 hence the starting index at 2. As there are two examples of convergence, I will add them together for more results. Note that each sum term converges separately. Sum approximation. You can think of it as the prime pi basel function. I will use many identities from here and Number Theory functions. The sums converge slowly:

$$\mathrm{P=\sum_{x=2}^\infty \left(\frac1{π^2(x)}+\frac1{π\left(x^2\right)}\right)=ln\prod_{x=2}^\infty e^{\frac{1}{\pi^2(x)}+\frac{1}{\pi\left(x^2\right)}}=4.71…}$$

$$\mathrm{\sum_{x=2}^\infty \frac1{\pi\big(x^2\big)}=1.86…, \sum_{x=2}^\infty\frac 1{\pi^2(x)}=2.84…}$$

Partial sums for P:

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Summand graph:

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It is possible to get bounds for $x\ge 2$ the summand as both bounds are positive. Graph of bounds:

$$\mathrm{\frac{x}{ln(x)+2}\le\pi(x)\le\frac{x\,ln(4)}{ln(x)}\implies \frac{log_4^2(x)+2log_4(x)}{x^2}\le\pi^{-2}(x)+\frac1{\pi\left(x^2\right)}\le\frac{ln^2(x)+6ln(x)+6}{x^2}}$$

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This gives $2.236…\le \text P\le 6.532…$

I will add more forms. How would one evaluate P? An exact answer is needed. You can also find an integral representation of P. Please correct me and give me feedback!

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With a few manipulation of the series we can prove that

$$\sum_{k=2}^\infty\frac{1}{\pi^2(k)} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{p_{n+1}-p_n}{n^2} = \sum_{n=2}^\infty p_n\frac{2n-1}{n^2(n-1)^2}-2$$

This series have a slightly better rate of convergence, but still looks far from a closed form (which I doubt exists).

The series $\displaystyle\sum_{k=2}^\infty\frac{1}{\pi(k^2)}$ seems much more difficult to handle.