How can I evaluate the following integral?
$$ \int_0^{\pi/2} \log\left(\frac{1 + a\cos\left(x\right)}{1 - a\cos\left(x\right)}\right)\, \frac{1}{\cos\left(x\right)}\,{\rm d}x\,, \qquad\left\vert\,a\,\right\vert \le 1$$
I tried differentiating under the integral with respect to the parameter $a$, and I also tried expanding the log term in a Taylor series and then switching the order of integration and summation. I ran into difficulties with both approaches.
Use the expansion for $|z| < 1$
$$\log{\left ( \frac{1+z}{1-z}\right )} = 2 \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^{2 k+1}}{2 k+1}$$
Then the integral is equal to
$$2 \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^{2 k+1}}{2 k+1} \int_0^{\pi/2} dx \, \cos^{2 k}{x}$$
It is straightforward to show that
$$\int_0^{\pi/2} dx \, \cos^{2 k}{x} = \frac{1}{2^{2 k}} \binom{2 k}{k} \frac{\pi}{2}$$
Thus the integral $I(a)$ is
$$I(a) = \pi \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^{2 k+1}}{2 k+1} \frac{1}{2^{2 k}} \binom{2 k}{k}$$
We may evaluate this sum by considering
$$I'(a) = \pi \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^{2 k}}{2^{2 k}} \binom{2 k}{k} = \pi \left (1-a^2\right)^{-1/2}$$
Integrating with respect to $a$ and noting that $I(0)=0$, we find that
$$I(a) = \pi \arcsin{a}$$