I have to evaluate the following limit and I want to know if the below algebraic manipulation is legitimate.
$$\lim_{x\to -\infty}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^x - \left(\frac{5}{4}\right)^x$$ Can I change the limit to positive infinity, seeing as that would just be the reciprocal of the fractions as such?
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^x - \left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^x$$
Yes that’s a very nice way to proceed when dealing with limts to $-\infty$ in order to avoid confusion and now you can conclude that
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^x - \left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^x=(\infty-0)=\infty$$
since it is not an indeterminate form.