Can someone help me understand the proof for this theorem:
All bounded sequences in $R^n$ have a sub-sequence that is convergent
Here's the proof:
$Suppose \: n=2 \:and\: u_{j}=\binom{x_{j}}{y_{j}} \\ We\:suppose\:that\:u_{j}\:is\:bounded\:for\:||\cdot ||_{\infty} \:Which\:means: \\ \exists M\geq 0, \forall j,\:max(|x_{j}|,|y_{j}|)\geq M(so\: (x_{j})\:and\:(y_{j})\:are\:bounded)\\ 1)(x_{j})\:is\:bounded:\\ \exists\:subsequence \:\tau_{j}(that\:is\:strictly\:increasing)\\ 2)The\:sequence\:(y_{\sigma_{j} })\:is\:bounded,\:so\:it\:has\:a\:subsequence.\:The\:associated\:subsequence\:to\:(x_{\tau_{j}})\:converges$
I am having a difficult time to understand the second part. The $\delta$ and $\sigma$ sequences just seem to have no connection to me.
It is true that a bounded sequence has a monotonic subsequence, but (i) it need not be increasing, (ii) it need not be strictly monotonic, and (iii) in the first place it is impossible to get hold of such a subsequence before knowing the full sequence all the way to the end.
Instead use Bolzano's theorem that guarantees you a convergent subsequence for any bounded sequence in ${\mathbb R}$. You then can argue as follows: If the sequence ${\bf z}_n=(x_n,y_n)\in{\mathbb R}^2$ $(n\geq1)$ is bounded then so is the sequence $(x_n)_{n\geq1}$ in ${\mathbb R}$. It follows that there is a subsequence $x_k':=x_{n_k}$ in ${\mathbb R}$ with $\lim_{k\to\infty} x_k'=\xi\in{\mathbb R}$. The sequence $y_k':=y_{n_k}$ $(k\geq1)$ is a bounded sequence of real numbers as well, hence there is a subsequence $y''_l:=y'_{k_l}$ with $\lim_{l\to\infty} y''_l=\eta\in{\mathbb R}$. Put $x''_l:=x'_{k_l}$ and ${\bf z}''_l:=(x''_l,y''_l)$. Then $({\bf z''}_l)_{l\geq1}$ is a subsequence of the given sequence $\bigl({\bf z}_n\bigr)_{n\geq1}$ with $$\lim_{l\to\infty}{\bf z}_l=(\xi,\eta)\in{\mathbb R}^2\ .$$