Let $G, H$ be groups and $f,g:G \rightarrow H$ and let $$K = \left\{ a \in G | f ( a ) = g(a) \right\}$$
must $K$ be a subgroup of $G$?
I tried to define a new map $h:G \rightarrow H$ as $h(a)=f(a)g(a)^{-1}$ and by according to this construction, if $h$ is a homomorphism we get $K=\ker H$ thus a subgroup of $G$.
I can't see how to show that $h(ab)=h(a)h(b)$, which makes me wonder if I'm on the right direction at all.
I think that the straight forward method for showing that $K$ is a subgroup of $G$ should work quite nicely.
Note that $e_{G} \in K$, as $f(e_{G}) = e_{H} = g(e_G)$
On the other side if $a,b \in K$, then we have: $f(ab) = f(a)f(b) = g(a)g(b) = g(ab) \implies ab \in K$
Also if $a \in K$, then we have that $f(a^{-1}) = (f(a))^{-1} = (g(a))^{-1} = g(a^{-1}) \implies a^{-1} \in K$
Therefore as $K$ is a subset of $G$ containing the identity, inverse of every element and it's closed wrt the associative operation we have that it's subgroup.