Let $E = \{e_1, ..., e_n\}$ be a basis of a $K$-vector space $V$. Let $A: E \times E \to K$ be any map. Then, there is exactly one bilinear form $B: V \times V \to K$ such that $B (e_i, e_j) = A (e_i, e_j)$ for each $e_i, e_j \in E$.
How do you prove it?
Given two vectors in $V$, expand each as a (unique) linear combination of the basis vectors, then use the bilinearity of $B$.