We need to show that there is a bijection $h \colon \mathbb{Z}_+ \times \mathbb{Z}_+ \to \mathbb{Z}_+$. For this purpose, Munkres define a subset $A$ of $\mathbb{Z}_+ \times \mathbb{Z}_+$ as follows: $$A \colon= \{ \ (x,y) \in \mathbb{Z}_+ \times \mathbb{Z}_+ \ \colon \ y \leq x \ \}.$$ Then he defines the maps $f \colon \mathbb{Z}_+ \times \mathbb{Z}_+ \to A$ and $g \colon A \to \mathbb{Z}_+$ as follows: $$f(x,y) \colon= (x+y-1, y) \ \ \ \forall \ \ (x,y) \in \mathbb{Z}_+ \times \mathbb{Z}_+,$$ and $$g(x,y) \colon= \frac{(x-1)x}{2} + y \ \ \ \forall \ \ (x,y) \in A.$$ That the map $f$ is a bijection is clear to me.
How to show (directly) that the map $g$ is also a bijection?
It is clear intuitively.
Once we show that $g$ is indeed a bijection, then the map $h$ could be defined as $$h \colon= g \circ f.$$
My effort:
For all $(x,y) \in A$, we note that $$g(x,y) = y+ \sum_{i=1}^{x-1} i.$$
What next?
Since you asked me to answer here: http://dbfin.com/topology/munkres/chapter-1/section-7-countable-and-uncountable-sets/#comment-2337405063.
To formally see that $g$ is bijective, note that
a) for every $x,y\in \mathbb{Z}_+$, $g((x,y))\in\mathbb {Z}_+$;
b) $g((1,1))=1$;
c) if $y<x$ then $g(x,y)+1=g((x,y+1))$; and
d) for every $x\in \mathbb{Z}_+$, $g(x,x)+1=g((x+1,1))$.
a)-d) show that the image set of $g$ is an inductive subset of $\mathbb{Z}_+$, i.e. it is $\mathbb{Z}_+$, and $g$ is surjective. They also show that $g$ is injective, as for $x<x'$ and $y<y'$, $g(x,y)<g(x,y')<g(x',1)$.