My answer:
$f: \Bbb{Z} \longrightarrow \Bbb{Z}$ defined by $f(x) = x$
Is that wrong? :D
My answer:
$f: \Bbb{Z} \longrightarrow \Bbb{Z}$ defined by $f(x) = x$
Is that wrong? :D
On
The simplest example is the zero transformation of the real numbers into itself. So, $f: \Bbb{R} \to \Bbb{R} $ defined by $f(x) =0$. Its kernel is all of $\Bbb{R} $, and is hence one dimensional.
What you wrote doesn't make sense because to talk about linear transformations, the domain and target space need to be vector spaces over a field, but I don't see how the set of integers, $\Bbb{Z}, $ can be made into a vector space.
Let $T : \mathbb{R}^{2} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^{2}$ an Linear Transformation, defined by : $$T(x,y) = (x-y, x-y)$$.
$\text{dim}(Ker(T)) = 1$