I have a double integral as below $$\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{y=-\infty, y\neq x}^{\infty} f(x)g(y)\,dx\,dy$$ is this equal to $$\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)g(y)\,dx\,dy$$ or is it equal to $$\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{y=-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)g(y)\,dx\,dy-\int_{x=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)g(x)\,dx$$ Thanks.
2026-05-16 19:51:53.1778961113
Excluding a point in double integral
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The diagonal $x=y$ that you're excluding has zero measure under $dxdy$, so excluding it will not change the value of the intergal, nor whether it exists.