I have a quick question: Why does Rudin choose to let $t=\frac {x}{x+1}$ so that $t<1$ ?
Indeed, Rudin States:
Theorem: For every real $x>0$ and every integer $n>0$ there is one and only one real $y$ such that $y^n=x$
Proof: That there is at most one such $y$ is clear, since $0<y_1<y_2$ implies $0<{y_1}^n<{y_2}^n$.
Let $E$ be the set of all positive real numbers $t$ such that $t^n<x$. If $t=\frac {x}{x+1}$ then $0<t<1$. Thus $E$ is not empty.
He continues the proof which I understand, but how is it no loss of generality by making $t<1$ (I am guessing that there is a bijection between $[0;1]$ and $R$, if so how to make that rigorous, if not how does he allow himself to do such a thing).
At that point, all that Rudin wants to prove is that there is some $t>0$ such that $t^n<x$. Taking $t=\frac x{x+1}$ works, because $\frac x{x+1}<x$ and, since $\frac x{x+1}<1$,$$\left(\frac x{x+1}\right)^n\leqslant\frac x{x+1}<x.$$