Let $A \in M_n(\mathbb R)$ and $\exp(A)=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\frac{A^i}{i!}$. How to prove $\exp(A)$ is an orthogonal matrix iff $A^t=-A$?
I can get that $\exp(A)$ is an orthogonal matrix iff $\exp(A^t)=\exp(-A)$, but how to get $A^t=-A$ from it?
What's more, is $\exp(A)$ injective or not?
The implication that $\exp(A)$ orthogonal would imply $A^\top=-A$ is simply wrong. Take a matrix for which $\exp(A)=I$, for instance $A=2\pi\pmatrix{0&-1\\1&0}$. Now that one is antisymmetric, but antisymmetry is not conserved under arbitrary conjugation, while being the identity is. For instance conjugating by a diagonal matrix with entries $(1,a)$ for some $a\neq0,1,-1$ gives a counterexample $$A'=2\pi\pmatrix{0&-a^{-1}\\a&0}:$$ it still has $\exp(A')=I$, but it is not antisymmetric.