Why does the following hold?
$$\left[\begin{matrix}a & b\\b & a\end{matrix}\right]^k=\frac{1}{2}\left[\begin{matrix}\left(a - b\right)^{k} + \left(a + b\right)^{k} & - \left(a - b\right)^{k} + \left(a + b\right)^{k}\\- \left(a - b\right)^{k} + \left(a + b\right)^{k} & \left(a - b\right)^{k} + \left(a + b\right)^{k}\end{matrix}\right]$$
Note that $$ \pmatrix{a&b\\b&a} = \frac 12 \pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1}\pmatrix{a+b&0\\0&a-b} \pmatrix{1 & 1\\1&-1} $$ where we observe that $$ \pmatrix{1 & 1\\1&-1}^2 = 2I $$ With that, we compute $$ \begin{align*} \pmatrix{a&b\\b&a}^k &= \left[\frac 12 \pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1}\pmatrix{a+b&0\\0&a-b} \pmatrix{1 & 1\\1&-1}\right]^k\\ &= \frac 12 \pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1}\left[\pmatrix{a+b&0\\0&a-b} \underbrace{\left(\frac 12 \pmatrix{1 & 1\\1&-1}\pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1}\right)}_I\right]^{k-1} \\ & \qquad \cdot \pmatrix{a+b&0\\0&a-b} \pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1} \\ & = \frac 12 \pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1}\pmatrix{a+b&0\\0&a-b}^{k}\pmatrix{1&1\\1&-1} \end{align*} $$ I'll let you figure out the rest.