While reading about modules from Hilton & Stammbach's Homological algebra, I saw the following statement : $\Lambda$ is a ring.
$\Lambda$ modules are generalizations of vector spaces and abelian groups. If $\Lambda$ is a field then $\Lambda$ module is a vector space and if $\Lambda=\mathbb{Z}$ then $\Lambda$ module is an abelian group.
I understand this quite well. Here comes the next statement.
In theory of vector spaces there is no interest in the following question : Given vector spaces $A$ and $B$ over a field $K$, find all vector spaces $E$ over $K$ such that $E/B\cong A$ as any such $E$ is isomorphic to $A\oplus B$. However this question turns quite interesting in case of abelian groups $A,B,E$.
First of all i do not understand how does $E\cong A\oplus B$.. I can think of one map $E\rightarrow E/B\rightarrow A\rightarrow A\oplus B$ first map being the quotient map, second map being the isomorphism and third map being inclusion.. How ever i do not think this is a surjective map.
So, what is the isomorphism that they are talking about $E\cong A\oplus B$..
What is stopping them to do the same for abelian groups..
There isn't a unique isomorphism; if you're given a short exact sequence $0 \to A \to E \to B \to 0$ of vector spaces, to exhibit an isomorphism $E \cong A \oplus B$ from here you need to pick a splitting, which means a section $s : B \to E$ of the map $E \to B$. Given a splitting, the isomorphism $A \oplus B \to E$ has components the given map $A \to E$ and the splitting.
Splittings need not exist for general modules, and in particular don't exist for abelian groups in general: the smallest example is
$$0 \to \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_4 \to \mathbb{Z}_2 \to 0.$$
Splittings always exist for vector spaces (assuming the axiom of choice) because vector spaces have bases, and so are free.