I am reading Open Logic TextBook. In which there is a proposition about Extensionality of first order sentences (6.12) It goes like this,
Let $\phi$ be a sentence, and $M$ and $M'$ be structures. If $c_M = c_{M'}$ , $R_M = R_{M'}$ , and $f_M = f_{M'}$ for every constant symbol $c$, relation symbol $R$, and function symbol $f$ occurring in $\phi$, then $ M \models \phi$ iff $M' \models \phi$
Does this statement implicitly imply that the Domain is exactly the same set, since $f_M = f_{M'}$ I am confused at this statement, does it mean, $f_M = f_{M'}$ only on the domain of constant values (or other covered terms?)
At first one may think that the domains could be different under the given definition when $\phi$ contains no function symbols (of arity greater than $0$) and no relation symbols. Then, the requirement on functions and relations would be vacuously satisfied and the interpretations of the constant symbols could agree even though the domains of the two structures are different.
However, consider the language $L$ with one constant symbol $c$ and the $L$-structures $M$ and $M'$ such that $D = \{0,1\}$, $c^M = 0$, $D'=\{0\}$, $c^{M'} = 0$.
We have $M \models \exists x \,.\, \neg(x = c)$, but $M' \not\models \exists x \,.\, \neg(x = c)$.