problem
$f, g$ are continuous functions on $E$ where $E$ is Lebesgue measurable set. If $f=g$ a.e on $E$ then $f=g$ on $E$? If not, give a counterexample.
effort
Let us change $[a,b]$ with $\{0\}$ which is a measurable set. Let $f: \{0\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $g: \{0\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be functions. Then, $f$ and $g$ are continuous, and clearly $f=g$ a.e. But of course $f$ must not be equal to $g$ necessarily.
question
- Is the example proper?
- Could you tell me more details?
refer
Show that if $f=g \text{a.e}$ on $[a,b]$ implies that $f=g$ on $[a,b]$.
Thanks!