Let $G$ be a group and $H$ be a subgroup such that $G/H$ is abelian. Let $H$ properly contain $K$, and $K$ is normal in $G$. Is $G/K$ also necessarily abelian?
One obvious counterexample can be found by letting $S$ be any non-abelian group, then $S/S$ is clearly abelian and then it is not required that all quotients of $S$ by proper subgroups be abelian ($G/\langle e \rangle \approx G$). Are there non-trivial counterexamples?
Of course there are nontrivial counterexamples.
If you want an example where all of $G$, $H$, and $K$ are nontrivial, take the dihedral group of order $16$, which is the group of rigid motions of a regular octagon. An explicit description is $$G = \langle r,s\mid r^8 = s^2 = e, sr=r^7s\rangle.$$
Let $H$ be the subgroup generated by $r$. This is normal, and $G/H$ is cyclic of order $2$, hence abelian.
Now let $K$ be the subgroup generated by $r^4$. This is the center of $G$, hence normal (in fact, characteristic). But $G/K$ is isomorphic to the dihedral group of order $8$, which is nonabelian.
More generally, you can take let $G$ any nilpotent group of class at least $3$, and let $H=[G,G]$ and $K=[H,G]$. Then $G/H$ is abelian, but $G/K$ is not abelian because its commutator subgroup is $H/K$, nontrivial.
Or take any group for which $H=[G,G]$ is a proper nontrivial subgroup, and $[H,H]$ is proper and nontrivial ($H$ nonabelian). For instance, any solvable group of solvability length three or more. For instance, take $G=S_4$, $H=A_4$, and $K$ the subgroup formed by the identity and the three involutions $(12)(34)$, $(13)(24)$, and $(14)(23)$.