This problem comes from our text book.
Evaluate $$ \lim\limits_{x \to 0}\frac{2^x-1-x}{x^2} $$ without using either L'Hopital's rule or Taylor series.
The picture below shows the solution given by the text book.
Many of the people who responded to this question say that the limit diverges. But according to the solution (see the attached image) given by the text book the limit is $ \frac{(\ln2)^2}{2} $. Is there an error in the solution given in the attached image?
Note: This problem ( and the solution) comes from Cengage, a long time favourite of the students preparing for IIT JEE Exam (IITs are India's most prestigious engineering institutes.) It is suprising that no student/teacher has found this mistake all these days. However, once posted on Stackexchange, the fallacy was resolved in a very short time.
Thanks to all the people who responded to this problem. Now the mistake in the book's solution is found.
Consider the limit when the denominator is $x$ instead an use the definition of derivatives for $f(x) = 2^x$.
$$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{2^x - 1 - x}{x} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{2^x - 2^0}{x - 0} + \lim_{x \to 0} - \frac{x}{x} = \lim_{x \to 0} 2^x \cdot \ln(2) - 1 = \ln(2) - 1 \not = 0$$
Now when we divide by some number very close to zero we're bound to get infinity or minus infinity