My teacher taught me this fast method to determine the equation of the tangent line to a conic section. In the Netherlands this is called "eerlijk delen" or literally translated into English "fair division".
Here is an example of how it works:
Find the equation of the tangent line to the circle $x^2+y^2+6x-8=0$ in $A(1,-1)$.
The equation of the tangent line is $x\cdot x_A+y\cdot y_a+3x+3x_A-8=0 \implies x-y+3x+3-8=0 \implies 4x-y-5=0$.
This same method works with all conic sections, but it still remains a bit vague to me why this works. Has someone seen this method previously, is it used often, and could someone provide a proof for this?
Suppose the original conic section is
$$Ax^2+Bxy+Cy^2+Dx+Ey+F=0$$
The tangent line at $(x_0,y_0)$ is
$$y-y_0=m(x-x_0)$$
To find $m$, take derivative on both sides of the conic section:
$$2Ax+By+Bx\frac{dy}{dx}++2Cy\frac{dy}{dx}+D+E\frac{dy}{dx}=0$$ Solve for $\frac{dy}{dx}$ and plug into $m$:
$$y-y_0=\frac{-2Ax_0-By_0-D}{Bx_0+2Cy_0+E}(x-x_0)$$
Simplify:
$$(2Ax_0+By_0+D)x+(Bx_0+2Cy_0+E)y-(2Ax_0^2-2Bx_0y_0-2Cy_0^2-Dx_0-Ey_0)=0$$
Use the fact that $Ax_0^2 +Bx_0y_0 +Cy_0^2+Dx_0+Ey_0+F=0$ since $(x_0,y_0)$ is a point on the conic section, we can simplify the equation further into:
$$(2Ax_0+By_0+D)x+(Bx_0+2Cy_0+E)y+Dx_0+Ey_0+2F=0\Rightarrow\\ (Ax_0+\frac{1}{2}By_0+\frac{1}{2}D)x+(\frac{1}{2}Bx_0+Cy_0+\frac{1}{2}E)y+\frac{1}{2}Dx_0+\frac{1}{2}Ey_0+F=0$$
In your case, $B=E=0$:
$$(Ax_0+\frac{1}{2}D)x+(Cy_0)y+\frac{1}{2}Dx_0+F=0$$
that is
$$x\cdot x_0+y\cdot y_0+3x+3x_0-8=0$$