I have problems with understanding Fatou's Lemma. What is the reason for using $\liminf$? Can someone please give an example where $\liminf \neq \lim$. When the reason does not depend on one of the two sides of the lemma, it is good to give an example when $\lim f_n \neq \liminf f_n$ and one when $\lim \mu(f_n) \neq \liminf \mu(f_n)$. Then I can see why $\liminf$ is used instead of $\lim$? Thanks in advance.
2026-04-11 01:28:46.1775870926
Fatou's lemma. Examples with limit inferior $\neq$ lim.
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You can take two examples:
Example 1: Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb{R}$. Take $f_{2n}=\dfrac{1}{n}$ and $f_{2n+1}=1-\dfrac{1}{n}$. Here note that $f=0$, and so it's integral is equal to $0$. Now, $f_{n}$'s all have integral infinity. If we just restrict our attention to $[0,1]$ say, then of course, the RHS from Fatou's lemma is $0$.
Example 2: Counting measure on $\mathbb{N}$. Take $a_{2n}=\dfrac{1}{n^2}$, and $a_{2n+1}=0$.
Here, $f=0$ again, and so is the RHS.
Apply Fatou's lemma and see what conclusions you get. Note that the limit doesn't exist in either case.