Just to feed my curiosity, Is the following statement true: FFT (inverse M) = IFFT (M)
Where FFT is the fourier transform, IFFT its inverse, and M a square matrix of any kind (made of natural integers).
Thanks,
2026-04-03 17:37:59.1775237879
FFT (inverse M) = IFFT (M)
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It is not true at all. why did you think that it could be in the first place? here is a counterexample from Matlab:
fft([1 1; 2 1])
ans =
ifft([1 1; 2 1]^-1)
ans =