I have $f(z)=2x+ixy^2$. I want to see if what I've done is correct or not.
I've found the Cauchy-Riemann equations: $2=2xy$ and $0=-y^2$. Obviously the function is differentiable for all $y=0$. Does that mean that the function is differentiable at $(1/y, 0)$ for all y in the real numbers?
The system that you got was$$\left\{\begin{array}{l}2=2xy\\0=-2y^2\end{array}\right.$$The second equation has only one solution: $y=0$. But if $y=0$, then the first equality doesn't hold.
The conclusion is that $f$ is differentiable nowhere.