We can at once discard $w=1$ since it doesn't verify the equation.
We notice that
$$1 + w^2 + w^4 + w^6 =0 \ \iff \\ w^4 + w^6 = (-1)(1+w^2)$$
hence, we can square both sides (can we?, are we losing solutions?),
$$w^8 + 2w^{10} + w^{12} = w^4 + 2w^2 + 1 \ \iff \\ (w^4)^2 (1+2w^2+w^4) = 1+2w^2+w^4$$
Since $\mathbb{C}$ is an integral domain, we know that either $1+2w^2+w^4 = 0$ or $(w^4)^2 = 1$.
We also know that
$$ 1+2w^2+w^4 = 0 \iff w^2 =-1 \\ (w^4)^2 = 1 \iff w^4 = \pm 1$$
But $w^2 =-1$ only if $w=\pm i$ and $w^4 = 1$ only if $w\in G_4 \subset G_{28}$; either way, $G_4 \setminus \{1\}$ is a solution.
On the other hand, $w^4 = -1$ only if $w^2 = \pm i$. But $w^2 \in G_{14}$ and $G_{14} \cap \{\pm i\} = \emptyset$ (since $4$ is not a divisor of $14$).
So our solution is $G_4 \setminus \{1\}$, right?
The systematic way is to compute the gcd of the polynomials $1 + w^2 + w^4 + w^6$ and $1-w^{28}$. This gcd is $w^2+1$ and so the solution is $w=\pm i$. This set is $G_4 \setminus G_2$.