Q. Find an example of a sequence of functions $\{f_n\}$ and $\{g_n\}$ that converge uniformly to some $f$ and $g$ on some set $A$, but such that $\{f_ng_n\}$ (the multiple) does not converge uniformly to $fg$ on $A$. Hint: Let $A=R$, let $f(x)=g(x)=x.$ You can even pick $f_n=g_n.$
As it is stated in Hint, let $A=R,$ and $f(x)=g(x)=x,$ and $f_n=g_n $
Since $f_n$ converges uniformly to $x$. $\forall\varepsilon>0, \exists M\in s.t. $ for $n\ge M, |f_n-x|<\varepsilon \hspace{0.5cm}\forall x \in R.$
But, $|f_n^2-x^2| = |f_n+x||f_n-x|=|f_n+x|\varepsilon\not < \varepsilon$ for some $x$.
I don't know how to pick $f_n$ satisfying these conditions. Could you give some hint?
I would take $f_n(x)=g_n(x)=x+\frac{1}{n}$. Then they converge uniformly over $\mathbb{R}$ to $f(x)=g(x)=x$.
On the other hand, if $A$ is any unbounded set of $\mathbb{R}$ then $$\sup_{x\in A}|f_n(x)g_n(x)-f(x)g(x)|=\sup_{x\in A}\left|\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)^2-x^2\right|=\sup_{x\in A}\left|\frac{2x}{n}+\frac{1}{n^2}\right|=+\infty$$ which means that $f_ng_n$ does not converge uniformly to $fg$ over $A$.