Let $f(A)=A^t$ be a linear transformation. Prove that its eigenvalues are $-1$ and $1$.
My try:
$f^2(A) = A$ So, $\forall A,f^2(A)=1 \cdot A$ . That means that $1$ is a solution of $P_A(x)$, so its also a solution of $P_{A^t}(x) \implies $ $1$ is an eigenvalue of $f$. I don't know what to do abut $-1$.
As you said, any eigenvalue of $f$ is necessarily a square root of $1$, so either $1$ or $-1$. To check that these are both actually represented, you should give a matrix $A$ with $A^T=A$ and another matrix $B$ with $B^T=-B$. (Some assumptions you haven't given us are required to ensure $B$ exists, but $A$ always exists (consider for instance $A=I$)).