I've got to find out if there are entire functions such that $f( e^\frac{1}{n})=\frac{n+1}{n}$ for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$.
We can write down $\frac{n+1}{n}=1+\frac{1}{n}$
I'm trying to see that $g(z):=f(e^z)-z-1$ gives $f(e^z)=1+z$ by identity theorem as $g(1/n)=0$ and has a limit point $0\in \mathbb{C}$. So $1+z$ would be the entire function. Is this right?
What you did is correct. And now you can deduce that there is no such entire function $f$, since $1+1\neq1+2\pi i$, but $f(e^0)=f\left(e^{2\pi i}\right)$. Therefore, you don't have $(\forall z\in\mathbb C):f(e^z)=1+z$.