Question:
Let $$f(x)=\int\frac{x-1}{x+1}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x^3+x^2+x}}$$ such that $f(1)=\frac{2\pi}{3}$
Then $f'(1)$ is equal to
A) $0$
B) $\cfrac \pi3$
C) $\cfrac\pi4$
D) $2$
Attempt:
\begin{align}f(x)&=\int\frac{x-1}{x+1}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^3+x^2+x}}dx\\ f(1)&=\int0dx\\ f(1)&=0+c\\ &= \frac{2\pi}{3}\\ \implies c&= \frac{2\pi}{3} \end{align}
I don't know what to do beyond this step. This is an indefinite integral so we cannot differentiate it. How else we bring $f'(x)$ into picture? Any hints?
The stipulation that $f(1)=2\pi/3$ is a red herring; it's irrelevant to the solution. As soon as you see a relation of the form $f(x)=\int g(x)dx$, you know that $f'(x)=g(x)$. In this case,
$$f'(x)={x-1\over (x+1)\sqrt{x^3+x^2+x}}$$
and thus $f'(1)=0$.