Let $f:\mathbb{R}\mapsto\mathbb{R}$ be a function such that:
$$f(x)=f(1-x), \forall x \in\mathbb{R}$$
$$\lim_\limits{x\to 2}{\frac{f(x)+4}{x-2}}=1$$
Find $\lim_\limits{x\to -1}{f(x)}$.
I have tried the following:
$$\lim_\limits{x\to 2}{\frac{f(x)+4}{x-2}}=1\Leftrightarrow \lim_\limits{h\to 0}{\frac{f(2+h)+4}{h}}=1\Leftrightarrow \lim_\limits{h\to 0}{\frac{f(-h-1)+4}{h}}=1$$
So, I may need to show that $f(-h-1)=f(h+1)$ and I am done. Any hint?
You are working too hard. For the second condition to hold, it must be true that $$\lim_{x\to 2} f(x)+4=0$$ But for $x$ close to $2$, we have $1-x$ close to $1-2=-1$. Hence $$\lim_{x\to 2}f(x)+4=\lim_{x\to -1}f(1-x)+4=\lim_{x\to -1}f(x)+4=0$$