The answer is $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n\ln(n)}{\ln(n!)}=1$$ but I have no idea how to solve it. I tried to apply the L'hospitals rule since top and bottom tend to infinity, but $$\frac{d}{dn}\log(n!)=\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{n-1}...$$
and I don't know if that helps or not. Thanks for any hints/answers.
UPDATE: Thank you all for the answers, I am currently working through them to see if I understand it. I don't know why you all have been downvoted. It wasn't me!


Use stolz cesaro. Let $a_n=\log (n^n)$ and $b_n=\log(n!)$. Then $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}-a_{n}}{b_{n+1}-b_n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log[(n+1)^{n+1}]-\log[n^{n}]}{\log(n+1)}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\log\left[(1+\frac{1}{n})^n\right]+\log(n+1)}{\log(n+1)}=1 $$ where we used the fact $$ \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\stackrel{n\to\infty}{\to} e. $$ By Stolz Cesaro, $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}=1. $$