I am trying to use L'Hopital's rule, but I'm not sure if I'm doing this correctly. In my textbook, the rule is stated as follows:
$(f(a) = g(a) = 0) \Rightarrow$ $\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(a)}{g(a)} = \frac{f'(a)}{g'(a)}$ (given $\frac{f'(a)}{g'(a)}$ is defined)
So in this case, I have $f(x) = x - \tan(x)$ and $g(x) = x- \sin(x)$, both of which are $0$ at $x = 0$. Also, $f'(x) = 1 - \sec^2(x)$ and $g'(x) = 1 - \cos(x)$. However, wouldn't this mean the RHS isn't defined, since $\frac{f'(a)}{g'(a)} = \frac{0}{0}$? I am confused how to resolve this.
$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x - tan(x)}{x - sin(x)}$
This is a $\frac00$ indeterminate form , hence L'hospitals rule is applicable;
$=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1-\sec^2(x)}{1-\cos(x)}$
applying L'Hospitals rule once again gives;
$=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{-2\sec^2(x)\tan(x)}{\sin(x)}$
$=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{-2\sec^3(x)\cdot\sin(x)}{\sin(x)}$
$=\lim_{x\to0}-2\sec^3(x)$
$=-2$