Somebody asked $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1-a^x\right)^\frac 1{x} \quad (0<a<1)$$ which is $1$. But the original question was missing the part $x\to\infty$, so I misinterpreted it as $x\to0^+$
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+}\left(1-a^x\right)^\frac 1{x} \quad (0<a<1)$$
which I couldn't yet figure out how to solve it. Wolfram says it's zero. Can somebody help? (without L'hopital if possible)
Write
$$\left(1-a^x\right)^{1/x}=e^{\frac1x\log(1-a^x)}$$
and now:
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+}\frac1x\log(1-a^x)=-\infty\implies \lim_{x\to 0^+}\left(1-a^x\right)^{1/x}=0$$
Observe that when $\;x<0,\,0<a<1\;$ , then $\;a^x>1\;$ so $\;\log(1-a^x)\;$ isn't defined as a real function