I am trying to find the limit
$$ \lim_{z\to 1+i}\left(\frac{z+2-i}{3}\right)^\frac{z-i}{z-1-i} $$
If we plug in $1+i$ for $z$, we get the following
$$ \lim_{z\to 1+i}\left(\frac{z+2-i}{3}\right)^\frac{z-i}{z-1-i}=1^\infty$$
Can we say that this limit equals to $1$?
Letting $\omega=z-1-i$ converts the limit to \begin{aligned} L & =\lim _{\omega \rightarrow 0}\left(\frac{\omega+3}{3}\right)^{\frac{\omega+1}{\omega}} \\ & =\lim _{\omega \rightarrow 0}\left(1+\frac{\omega}{3}\right)^1\left(1+\frac{\omega}{3}\right)^{\frac{1}{\omega}} \\ & =\left[\lim _{\omega \rightarrow 0}\left(1+\frac{\omega}{3}\right)^{\frac{3}{\omega}}\right]^{\frac{1}{3}} \\ & =e^{\frac{1}{3}} \end{aligned}