I want to find
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow0^+}xe^{1/x}$$
This is what my textbook does:
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow0^+}x\cdot e^{1/x}=\left[x=\frac{1}{t}\right]=\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty}\frac{e^t}{t}=+\infty$$
This is indeed correct. It basically replaces the variable x with $1/t$. What I instead did was:
- $x \rightarrow0^+$ (I replace x with the value that the limit approaches to, since $x$ is a continuous function).
- For $e^{1/x}$, this is a composition of function: $\frac 1 x \rightarrow+\infty$ for $x\rightarrow0^+$, therefore $e^{+\infty}=+\infty $ for $x\rightarrow0^+$.
This results in the product of $0^+$ and $+\infty$ which should be equal to $0^+$. I wonder what I did wrong in my reasoning. Any hints?
"This results in the product of $0^+$ and $+\infty$ which should be equal to $0^+$."
I'm afraid you can't do that since $0\cdot\infty$ is undefined. Think of the two examples:
If $x\to\infty$ and $\frac1x\to0$ then $\left(x\cdot\frac1x\right)\to\left(\infty\cdot0\right)=0$ right? But we have $\left(x\cdot\frac1x\right)=1$ so is the limit $0$ or $1$?
If $x^2\to\infty$ and $\frac1x\to0$ then $\left(x^2\cdot\frac1x\right)\to\left(\infty\cdot0\right)=0$ too right? But if $\left(x^2\cdot\frac1x\right)=x$ we should have $\left(x^2\cdot\frac1x\right)=x\to\infty$ so is the limit $0$ or $\infty$?
In essence, you're not allowed to do $0\cdot\infty$ as this is undefined. You have to treat your limits more carefully.