I need to find the infimum of the set $$S=\left\{\frac{1}{m}-\frac{1}{n} \, : m,n \in \mathbb{N^+}\right\}$$ and formally prove that it is indeed the infimum of $S$.
From intuition, I know the $\inf S=-1$ if $m\to\infty$ and $n=1$.
However, I'm generally having trouble with formally proving supremum and infimum related questions, despite knowing their definitions. Being of a engineering background, I find it challenging to get past my intuition. I tend to go around in circles with symbols whilst trying to prove questions such as this.
So any tips on proving this problem would be appreciated.
Your guess is correct. To prove that, note by definition, $c= \inf S$ is the greatest lower bound. So, to show that $c = \inf S = -1$, you need to show
The first part is probably easy. For the second part, Just use your intuition: If $d$ is a lower bound, then put $n=1$, we get
$$\label{1}d \le \frac{1}{m} - 1\tag{1}$$
If $d>-1$, then there is $m$ large so that $d > -1 + \frac 1m$ (Not sure if you want to use the Archimedean property to justify this). This contradicts to $\ref{1}$. Thus if $d>-1$, $d$ is not a lower bound of $S$.