a) $f: L^1(0,3) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$
b) $f: C[0,3] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$
for part a I got $\|f\| = 1$ because $\|f(x)\|=|\int_0^2x(t)dt| \leq \int_0^2|x(t)|dt \leq\int_0^3|x(t)|dt = \|x(t)\|_1$ so $\|f\|=1$
for b, I think its similar: $\|f(x)\|=|\int_0^2x(t)dt| \leq \int_0^2|x(t)|dt \leq\int_0^3|x(t)|dt = \|x(t)\|_1$ and I have a theorem that says there is some c>0 s.t. $\|x(t)\|_1 \leq c\|x(t)\|_{max}$ so by taking the infinum of all such c, we get that $\|f\| = 0$.
Are these correct? I am particularly worried about my answer for b
b) is not correct. There is some $c>0$ such that $\|x\|_{1}\leq c\|x\|_{\infty}$, then $\|f\|\leq c$ for this $c$, it does not mean that for every $c>0$, $\|f\|\leq c$.
Rather, the question needs the exact norm of the operator. Actually one has $|f(x)|=\left|\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2}x(t)dt\right|\leq\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2}|x(t)|dt\leq\|x\|_{\infty}\int_{0}^{2}1dt=2\|x\|_{\infty}$.
Now take $x(t)=1$ for $0\leq t\leq 2$ and $x(t)=-t+3$ for $2\leq t\leq 3$, then $\|x\|_{\infty}=1$ and hence $|f(x)|=2$, finally $\|f\|=2$.