I feel like I'm taking crazy pills. 1 generates $\mathbb{Z}_2$, and likewise generates $\mathbb{Z}_4$. So shouldn't (1,1) generate the whole thing? Yet I keep running up against
$\langle (1,1) \rangle = \{ (1,1), (0,2), (1,3), (0,0) \} $
which is order 4. $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_4$ is clearly order 8.
I looked at other examples on here to see if I was generating $\langle (1,1) \rangle$ correctly, and I THINK I am.... Am I not?
You are indeed writing $\langle (1,1) \rangle$ correctly, and no: $(1,1)$ does not (on its own) generate $\Bbb Z_2 \times \Bbb Z_4$.
In fact, $\Bbb Z_2 \times \Bbb Z_4$ is not generated by any single element, which is to say it is not cyclic. In general, $\Bbb Z_m\times \Bbb Z_n$ will be cyclic if and only if $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime.