Find the values of $x$ where $\sum_n \frac{x^{2n}}{1+x^{2n}}$ converges, and show that we have a continuous function on this set
I can see that
$$\frac{x^{2n}}{1+x^{2n}}<x^{2n},\forall x\in(-1,1),\forall n\in\Bbb N$$
so I can deduce that at least the series converges in $(-1,1)$, and if we take $|x|=1$ the series diverges, then the series converges only in the interval $(-1,1)$.
Now my problem is that Im unable to show that the limit function is continuous. A theorem says that if the series converges uniformly and each $f_n$ is continuous then $f$ is continuous as well.
Another theorem that I know about the continuity of the limit function of a series is: if $f_n$ is differentiable and $(f'_n)\to g$ uniformly, and exist some $x_0$ where $f_n$ converges then $(f_n)\to f$ uniformly and $f'=g$. But I dont get something useful from here either.
But Im unable to show that $\sum_n \frac{x^{2n}}{1+x^{2n}}$ converges uniformly on $(-1,1)$, I tried some M-test but I cant get something useful, can you help me with this question?
tl;dr: fix any $a \in (0,1)$ , and show normal convergence of the series $\sum_n f_n$ on $[-a,a]$. This will imply continuity of $f=\sum_n f_n$ on $[-a,a]$; since this holds for any $a\in(0,1)$, $f$ will be continuous on $(-1,1)$.
First detail: You didn't actually proved convergence only on $(-1,1)$, since your argument uses one that usually applies to power series (radius of convergence). But it's true nevertheless: letting $f_n(x) \stackrel{\rm def}{=} \frac{x^{2n}}{1+x^{2n}}$, we first restrict to $x\geq 0$ (as all $f_n$'s are even), and get:
so indeed you only have convergence on $I\stackrel{\rm def}{=}(-1,1)$.
Now, continuity: To prove continuity of $f=\sum_n f_n$ on $I$: since continuity is a local property, it suffices to show $f$ is continuous on every $[-a,a]\subseteq I$. Which is much easier... since you have normal convergence on every such $[-a,a]$.
That is, fix $a \in [0,1)$, and show the series $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sup_{x\in[-a,a]} \lvert f_n(x)\rvert $$ converges.$^{(\dagger)}$ This is normal convergence of the series on $[-a,a]$, which implies uniform convergence of the series on $[-a,a]$, which implies continuity of $f$ on $[-a,a]$ since the $f_n$'s are continuous. Since $a$ was arbitrary, $f$ is continuous on $(-1,1)$.
$(\dagger)$ This is immediate, as each $f_n$ is even and increasing on $[0,a]$: $$ \sup_{x\in[-a,a]} \lvert f_n(x)\rvert = \lvert f_n(a)\rvert = \frac{a^{2n}}{1+a^{2n}} $$ and since $a\in(0,1)$...