Let $X=\left\{f\in C^1[0,1]: f(0)=0=f(1)\right\}$.
Define $J:X \to \Bbb R$ by $J(f)=\int\limits^1_0 \left(f^\prime (x)^2-4\pi^2 f(x)^2\right)dx.$
Does $\inf\limits_{f\in X}J(f)$ exist?
If $F(x,f,f^\prime)=\left(f^\prime(x)^2-4\pi^2 f(x)^2\right)$, then to minimize $J(f)$, the function $F$ must satisfy the Euler-Lagrange equation: $F_{f}-\frac{d}{dx}\left(F_{f^\prime}\right)=0$. Let me know how to approach this? I came to know that $\inf\limits_{f\in X}J(f)=-\infty$. How?
Edit: I have corrected the definition of $J(f)$.
Take $f_n(x)=n\sin(\pi x)$. Then $$ J(f_n)=\int_0^1(n^2\pi^2\cos^2(\pi x)-4\pi^2n^2\sin^2(\pi x))\,dx=-\frac{3\pi^2}{2}n^2\to -\infty,\quad n\to+\infty $$